I have been pondering the following currently. Maybe it is complete bollocks and for sure it is hugely simplified, but it might also be an interesting idea...
Reading up again on Shore's research about somatic tinnitus, one of her findings indicate that somatosensory response becomes more hyperactive as auditory input becomes less active in the DCN (dorsal cochlear nucleus). This then manifests itself as increased or additional tinnitus when making certain head, jaw or other facial movements. I recall that, before my last noise incident, I either had no somatic tinnitus or it was at least negligible. Ever since the noise incident it became apparent.
The noise incident probably caused synaptic damage and maybe also hair cell loss above 8Khz, meaning the auditory input has been reduced to the DCN. In turn, to balance the input to the brain, the somatosensory input was increased resulting in what we know as "somatic tinnitus". If this is the case, isn't somatic tinnitus an indication of cochlear sensorineural hearing loss, even if the audiogram says we are fine? Furthermore, wouldn't measurement (i.e. with electrodes) of this somatosensory hyperactivity an objectification of tinnitus presence and perhaps even severity? Logic would indicate that more somatosensory compensation is required to maintain homeostasis when auditory input gets lower and lower.
Of course, this would only be a diagnostic for certain types of tinnitus (hearing loss related)...
Thoughts?
Reading up again on Shore's research about somatic tinnitus, one of her findings indicate that somatosensory response becomes more hyperactive as auditory input becomes less active in the DCN (dorsal cochlear nucleus). This then manifests itself as increased or additional tinnitus when making certain head, jaw or other facial movements. I recall that, before my last noise incident, I either had no somatic tinnitus or it was at least negligible. Ever since the noise incident it became apparent.
The noise incident probably caused synaptic damage and maybe also hair cell loss above 8Khz, meaning the auditory input has been reduced to the DCN. In turn, to balance the input to the brain, the somatosensory input was increased resulting in what we know as "somatic tinnitus". If this is the case, isn't somatic tinnitus an indication of cochlear sensorineural hearing loss, even if the audiogram says we are fine? Furthermore, wouldn't measurement (i.e. with electrodes) of this somatosensory hyperactivity an objectification of tinnitus presence and perhaps even severity? Logic would indicate that more somatosensory compensation is required to maintain homeostasis when auditory input gets lower and lower.
Of course, this would only be a diagnostic for certain types of tinnitus (hearing loss related)...
Thoughts?