Hi all I had a hearing test done last Friday. I am confused by the results and the explanation of the audiometrist. Appreciate if someone can shed some light. I was told by the audiometrist that I have exceptionally good hearing as both ears capture at about -10 db. However, he also said that I have high frequency hearing loss of about 9 khz in my left ear and 16 khz in my right ear. I presumed this is why the ringing in my right ear is louder? Does this make sense? I remember someone wrote about this in one of the thread but I can't find it now. I compared the results with the first hearing test that I did during the onset of T in 2006. The results then were in normal hearing limits. Does this mean that there is a change in my hearing or that the first audiologist did not test for negative range? In view of the latest results, what does this mean for my tinnitus and hyperacusis? Last but not least, my GP has some device in his office, which gives off a sharp vibrating noise that hurts my ears. I have always brushed it off as as some mosquito repellent and attributed the irritation to my sensitive hearing. With the latest results, could this also explains why I seem to be the only person who is irritated by that buzzing noise?