If, in the case of acoustic-trauma-induced tinnitus, it is posited that the brain reacts to the loss of certain incoming frequencies (via hearing loss) by "producing" them to fill in the gap, then ... HOW COME I can still hear external sounds that exactly match the frequency/volume of the tinnitus that is being generated by my brain? And even hear external sound frequencies above that level? This has always had me wondering ... I would love some input from the members who have great science backgrounds! THANK YOU!