Discussion in 'Support' started by JohnK, Dec 12, 2015.
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What does it all mean?
It appears I have ears. Two of them by best estimate.
GUESS MY T
You have T because you have ears and also the other parts of an auditory system (the existence of the other parts is demonstrated by the fact that your ears are also hearing) Other factors contribute to the cause of your T, yes, but those other factors would have had no effect if you hadn't have an auditory system in the first place!
Some docs probably say the same thing lol
I am SURE that ALL the docs are saying the same thing.
Oh they know what it means: "sucks to be you"
I mean, do they really know how it sucks to have T? I doubt, judging by how easy they tell you : "there is no cure, but it is just a sound, learn to live with it!"
So no hearing loss in your case then?
One thing I noticed, @JohnK: you were only tested to 8000 hz, which is standard for most hearing tests. But when it comes to tinnitus, hearing loss often has occurred at the higher frequencies. Mine, for example, starts around 11,000-12,000 hz (sorry, never can remember). So often here at TT, newcomers will say they were tested when they developed tinnitus but had no hearing loss. But they actually may indeed have hearing loss -- and just not know it.
You will need to know what frequencies you are missing of you ever go to the sound therapy route, like TRT or Neuronomics. Actually, clinicians will re-evaluate you with a more in-depth test if you go this route. That's how I discovered what frequencies I was missing, as my first ENT told me that I had no hearing loss after doing an audiogram. It also is important to get a baseline on your hearing loss, so you can monitor if it worsens over time.
You do have some missing OAEs in the higher frequencies which is indicative of outter hair cell loss. That is my understanding.
I only see one of your ears. How do we know your big toe isn't where your other ear is meant to be?
I see you have impaired OHC function at 4 khz in your right ear. It is most indicative of early sound induced hearing loss.
I also have normal hearing according to the standard test. As LadyDi said, you may have hearing loss in higher frequencies. However, as far as I'm concerned a normal hearing test is positive news: it would be far worse if you had both hearing loss AND tinnitus!
Not that I notice, anyway...
My hearing test said at the bottom mild hearing loss in upper ranges in the right ear.. If they didn't mention it to you then you probably don't have notable hearing loss. I've read on here that even if they can't detect the hearing loss you could still have some above the ranges of the normal test.. So complicated.
Yes, they said that was just due to my age
I thought your audiogram looked quite good compared to mine anyways. No downward slope into the upper frequencies that I see.
That sounds about right.
I have a printout of a hearing test I had done today and a previous test I had done last December. Mine is only one page and kind of looks like the first page @JohnK put up, but mine doesnt have a graph or anything complex. I didnt get anyhing at all like in the 2nd page. Just one simple paper with very little info. Maybe I got the most basic test? I could post it up later and see what people can get out of it?
Can anyone make this test out?. It is one sheet test result but I split in half. Not good with a camera phone haha.
Mild to Moderate hearing loss in your left ear around 4000 khz. Right ear seems fine.
What happened to your left?
If that question was for me. If you are asking how the left got like that. I am not sure. When I was younger I have had a concussion and someone has also layed a nice hard open handed smack to my left ear. So who knows what caused it really
I will say " normal audiogram" but the problem is T will not show there . And you hear good at high frec . so either youre young . like early 30s or youre ears are good if youre older .