Tinnitus and my audiogram

So I have taken online audiograms and have different results. When I took one using a pulsating tone my 4 khz drops down to about 30db but when I take it using warbled tones it is at about 10db. I know that it is my tinnitus masking the tones but if I go get fitted for hearing aids do they go based off the 10db or the 30db loss? My right ear also has a 10db loss with or without warbled tones and all the other frquencies match about the same.

I can hear equally (loudness and clarity in both ears) and have taken others tests online and it says my hearing is normal in both ears. I do have some difficulty with soft speech from woman speaking or when woman are speaking in loud environments. That is the only reason I want to get hearing aids. I also have ear fullness but I was told that was because of the hearing loss I experienced. Any advice?

 

An online test proves nothing.

A proper hearing test can determine whether or not you have hearing loss, but it cannot determine whether that hearing loss is the cause of your tinnitus (a hearing test was not invented to diagnose tinnitus - it was invented to determine hearing capability).

See an audiologist. That would be my advice.

 

I understand and defenitely agree but what I really wanted to know is if the audiologist can use warbled tones on the test to determine my hearing loss instead of pulsating or pure-tone. My hearing significantly improves with warbled tones at higher frequencies.

 

your hearing loss seems very moderate, they'll send more volumes to your ears but speech won't be much more clear.

do you feel like some frequencies are muted/lowered or more like you hear noise instead of hearing speech?

 

Very moderate as in very small or in the moderate hearing loss category? I feel it is harder to hear soft speech from woman in noisy environments. I can still hear them through the tv or fan on high but like at a loud restaraunt I have to use ear plugs to hear them more clearly. I hear them just not as clear. Funny thing is I hear exactly the same with my left and right ear and my left ear is the one with moderate T. I took plenty of screening tests which all said I was still within normal hearing in both ears.

 

Are you sure that you have a deficiency that came later in your life or are you born that way?

As far as i can remember deep men's voice aren't that clear , they use a very narrow band in frequencies while on the other side, women and child voices are as clear as crystal.

i understood recently after reading this forum that hearing doesn't mean understanding, speech is decoded into the auditory cortex.

i don't have any detectable hearing loss (doesn"t mean that i don"t have any) but i'm certainly performing less efficiently than others in noisy environment, i'm simply born that way.

 

No, I'm pretty sure. I never had trouble before the acoustic trauma. Now I have slight trouble, not much, but some. I actually hear children voices fine but soft woman voices is harder to hear. I definetly feel the before and after difference. It also could be the ear fullness tricking me. I hear perfectly through my cellphone and in conversations (even a group of people) with not much background noise. I hear fine at bars, movies, loud restaurants, etc. as with ear plugs (probably because of the H but the plugs do help "isolate" the voices more)

 

My question is if I would be considered to have hearing loss from where I heard the warbled tones or from the pulsating tones. They are exactly alike although the 4 khz is different in the warbled than in the pulsating by a 20db difference.