Audiogram and Other Hearing Test Results

You probably have fluid.
Lol.
What did they suggest?

 

They told me my hearing loss was mild at the ENT yesterday, I'm not so sure I agree with them. Looks like some of it dips pretty low. Anyone care to comment? thanks!

 

I agree with you: I wouldn't consider that as "mild loss". You're diving into the deeper end in high frequencies. Like me you are at 55 dB losses @ 8 kHz. Nothing mild about that.

You're fairly symmetric though!
Given the shape, I'm not sure I'd put noise induced at the top of the list. It seems like the cells closer to the base of the cochlea have been more affected than those at the apex, so that could mean something that happened close to the middle ear (as in my case) and diffused into the cochlea, but it's all speculation of course.

 

Do you know what caused your tinnitus GregCa?

 

Yes: otosclerosis destroyed (parts of) my middle ear and inner ear. It's a degenerative disease that has no cure, so things are not likely to get any better for me.

 

well even the ol 0-8k shows your tinnitus was clearly caused by hearing loss. No doubt about it

 

what audiologist call mild hearing loss is actually very noticable in high pitch detection.

The problem is they only measure hearing in the human voice and 8k range.

 

my audiologist would say stress/anxiety is the cause.

 

I read online that Prediabetes and Diabetes can cause Menieres and Otosclerosis.

It's all connected to how someone with insulin resistance metabolizes carbs.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16579191

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4942296/

http://www.tinnitusjournal.com/arti...nd-their-correlations-in-menieres-disease.pdf

https://www.healthyhearing.com/report/52369-Diabetics-twice-as-likely-to-have-hearing-loss

 

I dunno if there’s any ENT here on Tinnitus Talk.





I have tinnitus in right ear only.

I got contradicting conclusions from two different ENTs, the above one said there’s no significant any hearing loss in both ears; while the below said it seems I have a noise induced hearing loss, so I dunno what is what now.

 

btw one of them said I may have a very mild Otosclerosis in right ear.
While the other doctor didn’t agree.

 

Here are my audiograms one is from OCTOBER 2017, the Middle one is from JANUARY or so, and the last one is from last month.
AA

 

It looks like you have great hearing along with your T. I'm jealous!

 

Nice! No hearing loss at all.

 

Look at those dips on 3khz and 6khz....not ok.

 

I don't think I saved my papers but browsing through a few of these I can see mine was a bit different after all. Both of my ears were pretty high up in the negatives. What does it mean to have negative hearing loss? No idea. Who knows if they'd still be the same if I retook it now.

 

There is no negative hearing loss, that means your hearing is normal.
From -5db to 10db is normal, 15db-20db is slight hearing loss, 20db+ mild hearing loss, 40+ moderate and so on so forth.
If there are many peaks and troughs in the audiogram that's a bad sign (look at my last audiogram).

 

Yeah, but mine was at like...-40.

 

Where are you getting those numbers? And also... peaks and troughs can be indicative of NIHL, but what you have isn’t that. No audiologist would say you have hearing loss of any kind.

 

I have dips on 3khz and 6khz if that is not NIHL then I dont know what is .
I got those numbers from here.

 

I will post my entire reports from last year and this year later today

 

That is moderate hearing loss.

From last year report

XXXXXXX seemed to associate the onset of the tinnitus with the music exposure, and this does seem a possibility. However, the fact that he did not report the tinnitus starting until a week later would not be as consistent with noise induced hearing loss or acoustic trauma, which would be more likely to be noticed immediately after exposure.

 

I don't believe this is insinuating that you have hearing loss. To me this reads: "it seems unlikely that tinnitus is a result of noise exposure or noise induced hearing, because it doesn't exist."

 

One difference was noted and that is last year my speech in noise was fine, this year I have mild hearing loss in speech in noise (noisy areas), thus damaged inner hair cells.

 

No it's not. Below the line is hearing loss. Unless you are saying above the line is hearing loss too? At any rate, my audiologist said that my audiogram was perfect so I am going with her judgment.

 

Ok no worries.

 

So a year ago I had a hearing test done and they told me my hearing was good.

Yesterday I went and had another one done to see if I have had any changes and these are the results.

Can anyone tell me if they see any changes that are significant?

 

Your hearing looks pretty good indeed.

 

Your hearing looks great. A significant change would be a 30dB drop, you have normal fluctuations. Five to even 15dB variations between tests are considered normal. You could take the test tomorrow and see slightly different numbers. You could even take the test two times in a row and have these slight variations.

This reminds me that I am past due for my hearing test. After having seven tests in one year, I’ve been in no rush to do this year’s test.

 

Wow seven test in one year, why did they do that many? Do you have hearing loss?